For the situation described to be solvable, any of the contraints made in the question and assumptions made must result in a solution that does not break the laws of motion, otherwise the question is non-sense. (i.e. the answer is not "no", it's "this question does not make sense, or "fish"

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The point which is causing the problem is the assumption that "speed of the wheels" = "wheelspeed" = "speed of rotation of the wheels" resulting in the plane speed being zero. Let's look the algebra behind that...
The frame of reference for speed measurements is a fixed point on the ground, except for the "wheelspeed" or "speed of rotation of the wheels" is the rate of rotation of the wheel times the circumference of the wheel.
Vp = velocity of the plane
Vc = velocity of the conveyor belt
ws = wheel speed
Positive velocites are for motions from left to right. Postive wheel speeds are for clockwise rotations (i.e. the speed of the wheel at its circumference measured at the top of the wheel and relative to the axle of the wheel).
For a wheel in contact with a surface, without slippage, the wheelspeed is:
ws = Vp - Vc (1)
Here's where we need to decide what the velocity of the conveyor belt is.
The direction of motion of the conveyor belt is such that its rotation is opposite that of the wheel. If speed of the wheel is the wheelspeed, then the conveyor belt speed is:
Vc = -ws (2)
Substiture into (1)
ws = Vp - (-ws) = Vp + ws
Which is solved when Vp=0. (3)
How this interpreted is where you can be caught out.
All the solution (3) says is that for the contraints (1) and (2), the velocity of the plane must be zero. Also note that the wheel speed and the converyor belt speed have not been found - they can be any speed. This is not a useful solution!
(1) is the result of no wheel slippage. Since the landing gear wheels are free to rotate, the wheels will not slip. So this constraint is correct.
(2) is the result of assuming conveyor belt speed = the speed of rotation of the wheel.
Now, if you assume that the "speed of the wheel" = "speed of the wheel's axle" = the speed of the plane (Vp), the conveyor belt now runs in the opposite direction to the planes direction of travel (to keep with the constraint of the "rotation" of the conveyor belt being opposite to that of the wheel)
Vc = - Vp (4)
Substitute this into (1)
ws = Vp - ( -Vp) = Vp + Vp = 2Vp (5)
Which is a useful solution, as it provides the wheelspeed and the speed of the conveyor belt (relative tot he ground), in terms of the speed of the plane (relative tot he ground). Oh and since there is no wind (Va = 0), the planes ground speed is also it's air speed. This is the complicated way of solving the problem!
The other problem with assuming (2) is that by examing the forces applied to the plane (basically, just the engine thrust), and given that the wheels are free to rotate, according to the laws of motion, the plane MUST accelerate. (a net external force applied to an object causes that object to accelerate). The only way (2) can be true is if the wheels are not free to rotate (i.e. the brakes are one) in which case (1) no longer applies. But since the plane "is ready to take off", it is reasonable to assume the pilot has released the brakes to (attempt to?) accelerate down the runway.
If you assume (2), and as a result insist the plane cannot move, your assumption in effect breaks the laws of motion (failing the Occam's razor test), or other assumptions made are incorrect.
I've got a B.Sc. in Physics* - I've probably spent a bit more time doing physics than most people (as in the general population, not just toyspeed). I'm quite confident I know what I'm talking about with regard to this problem.
The question would be perhaps suitable as a Year 12-level Physics question - which is the year that the Laws of Motion are covered - well, they were 17 years ago
* Athough I admit being a bit rusty the Quantum Mechanics, Classical Mechanics, Thermodynamics and General Relativity

(still pretty hot on Electronics though)